Jan 12, 2017 · As for Proto-Indo-European influence on Semitic, there don't seem to be any Proto-Indo-European words which are attested in all branches of Semitic. Individual words from post-PIE languages entered various languages of the Middle East, such as words relating to horse husbandry in Akkadian and Hurrian, but otherwise there's no identifiable PIE ...

Jul 20, 2017 · As several others have said, older languages like Hittite, Sanskrit, Avestan, Greek, and Latin definitely have more in common with Proto-Indo-European (PIE) as they are not removed as far from the ancestral source in time, and also because PIE was mostly reconstructed in their image. A more interesting question to ask is which modern (still ...

Sep 4, 2019 · Rather, Sanskrit and those other languages all share a common ancestor, called "Proto-Indo-European" (or "Proto-Indogermanic"), which was spoken somewhere between 4500 and 2500 BCE. There are no surviving records of Proto-Indo-European (PIE for short), but scholars have been able to reconstruct it by comparing the languages that are attested ...

Generally, all Indo-European Anatolian languages had some kind of agglutinative qualities, apparently because of the substratum languages that were agglutinative e.g. Hattic and Hurrian. Nevetheless, that does not qualify them as agglutinative in the same sense as Korean, Japanese, Turkish, Basque, Berber and so on.

May 13, 2016 · Reconstructed Indo-European is essentially a set of quasi-algebraic symbols for the purpose of establishing regular sound correspondences between the attested languages. No one knows how proto-Indo-European was actually pronounced. The currently fashionable doctrine is that PIE had only two real vowels, namely /e/ and /o/.

May 11, 2015 · Almost all Indo-european languages spoken in Europe have both definite and indefinite articles - for instance, all Germanic languages and Romance languages have them (correct me if I am wrong). Whereas, none of the languages spoken in India that belong to this family have any articles in the same sense as in, say English.

Another route, which might be more likely for Indo-European languages, is sound shifts. The markings for two genders become similar for all/some words and the two genders merge. Or, some words of gender X start to sound like words of gender Y due to sound shifts, and change genders so that the system of markings will still make sense.

Sep 9, 2024 · Each language has its own set of phonotactic restrictions; being an Indo-European language doesn’t come with any special restrictions. Some restrictions will be more common than others, but those restrictions will also most likely be more common outside Indo-European (e.g., disallowing initial clusters like /lk/ or /kg/ is near-universal in ...

Zuckermann argues that Israeli Hebrew, which he calls "Israeli", is genetically both Indo-European (Germanic, Slavic and Romance) and Afro-Asiatic (Semitic). He suggests that Israeli Hebrew is the continuation not only of literary Hebrew but also of Yiddish, as well as Polish, Russian, German, English, Ladino, Arabic and other languages spoken ...

Dec 22, 2023 · this passive is in fact present in all the modern North Germanic (Scandinavian) languages! It has its origin in the reflexive pronoun being suffixed to the verb (and does not continue the Proto-Indo-European middle), and in Old Norse still had this reflexive sense, before gradually shifting to its modern passive sense –